Why does the Torah write "Va'asher Yiten ... " rather then "Va'asher Yisach"?
Kerisus, 6b: To establish the Shi'ur for which one is Chayav as a k'Zayis. 1
Kerisus, Ibid.Which is how 'Nesinah' is usually interpreted. See Torah Temimah, note 61. See also Oznayim la'Torah,
What are the implications of the word "Va'asher Yiten Mimenu al Zar"?
Kerisus, 5a: It implies that the prohibition of anointng is confined to the Shemen ha'Mishchah that Moshe made. 1
According to R. Meir Refer to 30:25:1:1*) anointing with a replica of the Shemen ha'Mishchah was not possible, since no oil would have remained.
What is the definition of a "Zar" in the current context?
Rashi and Ramban #1 (citing Kerisus, 6a): It pertains to someone who is neither a Kohen Gadol (prior to his inauguration) nor a king (prior to his coronation).
Ramban #2 (citing Ibn Ezra) and Targum Yonasan: It pertains to anyone who is not a descendent of Aharon - even a king. 1
See Ramban.
Who is Chayav Kareis?
Rashi and Rashbam: Someone who anoints a Zar with the Shemen ha'Mishchah of Moshe. 1
But not if he anoints him with the replica that somebody else made (Rashi). Refer to 30:33:1.1:1.
Bearing in mind that the Torah inserts only one Kareis for both replicating the Shemen ha'Mishchah and anointing with it, how mant Chata'os must a person bring performs both?
Why does the Torah forbid making oil like the Shemen ha'Mishchah, and replicating the Ketores for personal use in Pasuk 38?
