Why does the Torah not insert 'be'Yom Sham'o', like it did in Pasuk 8?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because Pasuk 8 is referring to where he is silent S'tam, with no specific intentions, in which case he can still annul the Neder until nightfall; whereas the current Pasuk is referring to where he was silent with the intention of annuling the Neder following which he is no longer permitted to annul it. 1
Refer also to 30:15:0.1:1.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve?Chol Isar ? Yakum"?
Targum Yonasan: To teach us that even if, after upholding her Neder, her husband dies, her father does not regain jurisdiction over her, and cannot annul her Nedarim, even if she is not yet a Bogeres.
