What are the implications of "ve'Shama Avihah"?
Sifri: It implies that, a man who is deaf cannot annul his daughter's Nedarim. 1
Refer to 30:6:1.1:1.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Veshama Avihah es Nidrah"?
Mishnah Nedarim, 11:5 and Bartenura: To teach us that, when annuling his daughter's Neder, her father must know exacly what Neder she made - If she declares a Neder to be a Nazir, and he initially thought that she undertook to bring a Korban, or if it was to forbid figs and he thought it was grapes, he must repeat the annulment. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 47.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Hechrish lah Avihah"?
Sifri: To teach us that, when endorsing his daughter's Neder, her father must know that it was his daughter who declared the Neder, and that, if he initially thought that it was his wife who made the Neder, when he discovers that it was his daughter, he is subsequently permitted to annul it. 1
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve?Chol Isar ? Yakum"?
Sifri: To teach us that, once the father endorses the Neder, he is no longer permitted to annul it, even on the same day.
What if the father is silent with the intention of annuling it - or possibly annuling it - the next day?
Presumably when Targum Yonasan writes here and in Pasuk 15 ''Veyiskaven Veyishtok lah", he means that the husband or father's silence is only considered to be a Hakamah, if he intends to remain silent, but if he intends to mull it over until the following day, he is permitted to annul it then.
