What are the connotations of "ve'Im Heini Avihah osah"?
Rashi #1: It means that he (verbally) annuls her Neder. 1
Rashi #2: It means that he stops (or removes) her Neder. 2
What are the implications of "ve?Im Heini Avihah osah be'Yom Sham'o"?
Sifri: It implies that her father can annul Nedarim that he hears about from someone else other than his daughter. 1
What is the difference between the Hafarah of a father and a husband, and the Hatarah of a Chacham?
Gur Aryeh (in Pasuk 2): Hafarah is from now on and does not require the wife or daughter's regret, as opposed to Hatarah which works retroactively from the time he vowed and which can only be annuled through regret. 1
What did the woman do wrong? Why does she require forgiveness?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: The Pasuk is referring to a woman whose husband annulled her Neder of Nezirus, and, unaware of his annulment, she subsequently violates it 1 by drinking wine or rendering herself Tamei Meis.
Seforno: She needs forgiveness for declaring a Neder with regard to something that she is unable to keep. 2
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Ki Heini Avihah osah"?
Ramban: To teach us that she is only absolved from sin if she violated the Neder after her father annuled it but not if she violated it beforehand. 1
Sifri #1: To teach us that, if after declaring the Neder, she claims that her father always annuled her Nedarim, the Neder stands - because he did not in fact, annul it. 2
Sifri #2: To teach us that a girl's Nedarim are only annuled if her father himself annuls them but not if he appoints an Apotropus (an agent) to annul them whilst he is away. 3
Because, as opposed to a Chacham, who annuls Nedarim retroactively, a father (and a husband) can only negate them from the time of the negation and onwards.
See Torah Temimah, note 49.who explains that, although by Hafarah we do not go after assessment, by Hakamah we do.
See Torah Temiah, note 53.
What are the connotations of the words "ve'Im Heini Avihah osah"? What is the difference between Hana'ah' and 'Hafarah'?
Torah Temimah, in Pasuk 10 (citing the Rambam, Nedarim, 13:5): It means that her father forced his daughter to annul her Neder - as opposed to "ve'Heifer", which means that he annuled the Neder, thereby permitting her to break it. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 44, who elaborates. See also ha'Torah ve'ha'Mitzvah, Siman 16.
What is the word "Ki Heini Avihah osah" coming to preclude?
Nedarim, 86b: It precludes where, when annulung his daughter's Neder, her father thought that it was his wife who made the Neder, when he discovers that it was his wife, he is obligated to annul it again.
