What are the implications of "Ki Kodesh Hi"?
Kesuvos, 34a: It implies that it (Shabbos) is holy but not Ma'aseh Shabbos something that one mde or did on Shabbos be'Isur - which is permitted. 1
Yoma, 85b: It implies that Shabbos is placed in your hands, but you are not placed in its hands - in other words 'Piku'ach Nefesh overrides Shabbos'.
See Torah Temimah, note 21.
What are the connotations of "Ki Kodesh hi Lachem"?
Seforno: It comes to place an Asei on keeping Shabbos.
Mechilta: Stressing the word "Lachem", it teaches us that Shabbos adds Kedushah on to Yisrael.
Why does the Torah add "Ki Chol ha'Oseh bah Melachah"?
Mechilta: To teach us that one is only Chayav if one performs the complete Melachah. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 30.
Why does the Torah use the double expression "Mos Yumas"?
How will we reconcile"Mechalelehah Mos Yumas" with the Pasuk in Pinchas, Bamidbar 28:9 "u've'Yom ha'Shabbos Sh'nei Chevasim ... " - which permits bringing Korbanos on Shabbos?
Why does the Torah "Mechalelehah" (feminine) and not 'Mechalelo'?
Mechilta: Because it is referring to Shabbos in general (which incorporates night-time) - to teach us that one is Chayav for desecrating the night of Shabbos as well as the day. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 29.
What is the correlation between "Mos Yumas" and "ve'Nichr'sah ... "?
Rashi: "Mos Yumas" if there are witnesses and warning; "ve'Nichr'sah", if there are not. 1
Ramban (in Pasuk 13): "ve'Nichr'sah ha'Nefesh ha'Hi me'Amehah" means that, after the Mechalel Shabbos dies, his Soul will not return to the vicinity of Hashem, where the other souls go after death. 2
What are the implications of "Kol ha'Oseh bo Melachah" ?
Mechilta: It implies that the transgressor is only Chayav a Korban if he performs the complete Melachah - if for example, he wove two threads be'Shogeg in one He'elam (without finding out in between that it is Asur). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 30.
Why is the punishment for transgressing Shabbos so severe?
Seforno: Because someone who breaks Shabbos denies the Creation, and he therefore has no portion in the Mishkan or in the One who dwells in it.
Why does the Torah insert the (othersise superfluous) word "Venichr'sah ha'Nefesh ha'Hi"?
Mechilta: It teaches us that "Venichr'sah" - which means cut off - is confined to where the sinner sinned be'Meizid, but not where he sinned be'Shogeg.
Why does the Torah write "mi'Kerev Amehah" (in the plural)?
Oznayim la'Torah: To negate the notion that the Soul of a Mechalel Shabbos is cut off from Yisrael, but can go and join the Chasidei Umos ha'Olam, who have their own portion in Olam ha'Ba.
Mechilta: It teaches us that, where there are no two witnesses, the sinner is Chayav Kareis, and and everybody else is absoled of guilt. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 33.
