1)

What are the connotations of "ve'Atah"?

1.

Midrash Rabah (on Pasuk 32): 'Ein "ve'Atah" Ela Teshuvah'. Just as Yisrael did Teshuvah, so too, did Hashem (Kevayachol) do Teshuvah. 1


1

In keeping with the Pasuk in Zecharyah, 1:3 "Shuvu Elai ... ve'Ashuv Aleichem".Refer also to 32:32:0.2:1*.

2)

How was the statement "Hinei Mal'achi Yeilech Lefanecha" a punishment?

1.

Rashi: Hashem was telling Moshe that from now, on, an angel 1 would lead them to Eretz Yisrael and not Himself. 2


1

See second Ba'al ha'Turim. Refer to 33:12:1:2*.

2

Oznayim la'Torah: This was 'Midah Keneged Midah' - They said 'Asei lanu Elohim asher Yeilchu Lefaneinu!' denying that Hashem went before the Camp of Yisrael; So Hashem responded by sending an angel who would lead them instead of Himself.

3)

"Hinei Mal'achi Yeilech Lefanecha". Which angel is Hashem referring to?

1.

Refer to 33:12:1:2*.

2.

Ba'al ha'Turim: ?Mal?achi? comprises the same letters as ?Micha?el?. 1


1

Ba?al ha?Turim: Hashem said ?Mal?achi? because Micha?el is Hashem?s personal angel.

4)

Why did Hashem say vaguely "El asher Dibarti Lach"? Why did he not say "el Eretz ha'Cana'ani ... "?

1.

Ramban: Because, covering up His anger, he was simply telling Moshe that He had acquiesced to his request - and that He would carry out what He had promised him - for his (Moshe's) sake, but that He had not forgiven them. 1


1

Adding "u've'Yom Pokdi u'Fakadti" - that He would punish them for both sins combined (Ramban).

5)

What did Hashem mean when he said "u've'Yom Pokdi u'Fakadti"?

1.

Rashi #1, Ramban #1 and Rashbam: It means that although He had accepted Moshe's request not to wipe them out in one go, He would punish them little by little, so that every time they would sin, He would add to the punishment to atone for the sin of the Golden Calf. 1

2.

Rashi #2 (in Bamidbar 14:33) 2 Ramban #2 and Seforno: Even though Hashem accepted Moshe's request to bring them into Eretz Yisrael, in the event that they sin again, 3 Hashem will not forgive them, but will incorporate the sin of the Eigel in the punishment. 4

3.

R. Bachye #1 (citing Sanhedrin 102a #1): There is no punishment that befalls Yisrael that does not include a little of the sin of the Golden Calf.

4.

R. Bachye #2 (citing Yerushalmi Ta?anis 4:5): There is no punishment that does not include one twenty-fourth 5 - like the tip of the scales of a litra weight - of the sin of the Golden Calf. 6

5.

Sanhedrin, 102a #2: It refers to a fixed time (a specific date) that is designated for punishment. 7


1

Ramban: Or it is a hint that they would eventually be exiled from the land.

2

Refer to Bamidbar 14:33:3:1*.

3

A prediction of the sin of the Meraglim. Refer to 14:33:3:1. Refer also to 32:34:2:1*.

4

Seforno: As the Pasuk writes in Bamidbar (14:11) and like we find in Melachim 1, 1:52). This also follows the Gemara in Yoma, 86b, that when a person sins twice, he thinks it is permitted.

5

See Torah Temimah, note 46.

6

This is basically the same as answer #1.

7

See Torah Temimah, note 45.

6)

"u've'Yom Pokdi u'Fakadti". How will we reconcile this with the Pasuk in 34:7 ?Pokeid Avon Avos al Banim ve?al ... Shileishim ve?al Ribe?im, confining the punishment to four generations?

1.

R. Bachye: The Churban Beis-Hamikdah served as a complete and final atonement for the sin of the Eigel, and when the Torah writes "u've'Yom Pokdi u'Fakadti", it is not referring to punishments but that Hashem will continue to remember 1 the sin of the Eigel whenever the generation sins, 2 with the result that He will not have mercy on them but will treat them with the Midas ha?Din.


1

R. Bachye: Because ?Pkod Yifkod? is is a Lashon Zechirah. See R. Bachye who explains why the Torah uses a Lashon Pekidah andd elaborates.

2

It is not clear how this anwers the question however, seeing as the CHurban Beis-Hamikdash took place more than four generations after the sin of the Eigel.

7)

The B'nei Levi killed those who served the Eigel. Why were further punishments needed?

1.

Refer to 32:20:151:1-3.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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