What is "Zos ha'Aretz" coming to preclude?
Rashbam: It precludes the lands 1 that Hashem added to the Shevu'ah that He made to Avraham.
The Keini, Kenizi and Kadmoni, but not the Refa'im (Og Melech ha'Bashan), who are equivalent to the Chivi - See Rashbam. Refer also to Bereishis, 15:19:1:1*.
Why does the Torah insert the words "Leimor"?
Rashi: To instruct Moshe to go and inform the Avos 1 that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu had kept the promise that He made to them. 2
See Torah Temimah citing Sotah, 13b and note 2.
Rashi: In fact, Hashem is telling him that that is why He is showing him the land now - in advance, but were it not for the decree prohibiting him from crossing the Yarden to enter it, He would have waited until he had seen the people actually established in the land before passing on the information to the Avos.
Why did Hashem show Moshe Eretz Yisrael?
Rashi #1: Refer to 34:4:2:1*.
Rashi #2: Refer to 32:52:2:1.
Ramban: Knowing Moshe's intense love for Eretz Yisrael, Hashem showed him the land in all its goodness in order to make him happy.
Seforno: In order to bless it. 1
Refer to Bamidbar 27:13:152:1,2 & 4.
We find that some of his B'rachos pertain to that tribe's portion in Eretz Yisrael (for example. "umi'Meged Tevu'os Shamesh" - 33:14 (PF).
Why did Hashem add the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor"?
Rashi: Refer to 34:4:2:1*.
Seforno: Refer to 34:4:3:3. Because had he entered Eretz Yisrael, his B'rachah would have prevented it from ever being destroyed. 1
Bamidbar Rabah (23:5): With reference to Gehinom - Moshe was worried that he might go to Gehinom, so Hashem assured him that he will not.
Seforno: Whereas the decree had already been issued that when their measure was full, they would go into exile - See for example Nitzavim, 30:18 and Vayeilech, 31:16. Refer also to Bamidbar 20:12:3:2*.
Why does the Torah not insert the Beis-Hamikdash, something that Moshe specifically asked to see - at the beginning of Va'eschsnan?
Oznayim la'Torah: Yerushalayim is included in "Eretz Yehudah" and the Beis-Hamikdash, in the words "Ad ha'Yam ha'Acharon" - both in Pasuk #2. 1 .
This answer is inadequate however, since it minimises the importance of the Beis-Ha'mikdash, when it was surely uppermost in Moshe's mind.
Why does he Torah write here "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor" whereas in Ha'azinu, 32:52, it wrote "ve'Shamah Lo Savo"?
