The Keini, Kenizi and Kadmoni, but not the Refa'im (Og Melech ha'Bashan), who are equivalent to the Chivi - See Rashbam. Refer also to Bereishis, 15:19:1:1*.
2)
Why does the Torah insert the words "Leimor"?
1.
Rashi: To instruct Moshe to go and inform the Avos
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that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu had kept the promise that He made to them.
2
Rashi: In fact, Hashem is telling him that that is why He is showing him the land now - in advance, but were it not for the decree prohibiting him from crossing the Yarden to enter it, He would have waited until he had seen the people actually established in the land before passing on the information to the Avos.
Seforno: Whereas the decree had already been issued that when their measure was full, they would go into exile - See for example Nitzavim, 30:18 and Vayeilech, 31:16. Refer also to Bamidbar 20:12:3:2*.
5)
Why does the Torah not insert the Beis-Hamikdash, something that Moshe specifically asked to see - at the beginning of Va'eschsnan?
1.
Oznayim la'Torah: Yerushalayim is included in "Eretz Yehudah" and the Beis-Hamikdash, in the words "Ad ha'Yam ha'Acharon" - both in Pasuk #2.
1
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This answer is inadequate however, since it minimises the importance of the Beis-Ha'mikdash, when it was surely uppermost in Moshe's mind.
6)
Why does he Torah write here "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor" whereas in Ha'azinu, 32:52, it wrote "ve'Shamah Lo Savo"?
1.
Sifri (in Ha'azinu 341): Following Moshe's request that if he cannot enter Eretz Yisrael as king, he should be permitted to enter as a commoner; if he cannot enter alive, he should be permitted to enter dead! Hashem replied "ve'Shamah Lo Savo", "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor"
