"Eileh ha'Mitzvos ve?ha?Mishpatim asher Tzivah Hashem be?Yad Moshe ? ?. Why does the Torah insert ?ve?ha?Mishpatim?, which it omitted at the end of Bechukosai?
R. Bachye: Because it discussed the Dini of inheritance of murderers - in connection with which the Torah uses the term ?Mishpat??. 1
See R. Chavel?s footnotes.
"Eileh ha'Mitzvos ve?ha?Mishpatim asher Tzivah Hashem be?Yad Moshe ? ?. Why does the Torah write ?be?Yad Moshe? and not ?es Moshe], like i did at the end of Bechukosai?
R. Bachye: Because, as opposed to the covenant that Hashem made with Yisrael to which the Pasuk in Bechokasai refers was broken and did not lsst, the covenant that He enterd into at Arvos Mo?av to which the current Paasuk pertains, was permanent. 1 2
See R. Bachye and R. Chavel?s footnotes DH ?Hishlich mi?Yadav?.
Hence the Torah writes in Devarim 28:69 ?Eileh Divrei ha?Beris ? Lichros es B?nei Yisrael Mil?vad ha?Beris asher Karas Itam be?Chorev.
What is "Eileh ha'Mitzvos" coming to teach us?
Refer to Vayikra 27:34:1:1*.
