What did the butler mean when he said, "Ish ke'Fisron Chalomo Chalamnu"?
Refer to 40:5:2.
Why does it say "va'Nachalmah Chalom" (singular)? And why did he mention that they dreamed the same night?
Malbim: The dreams were very similar. He could not know from them (without Ru'ach Elokim) that I will return to my post and the baker will be killed. And do not say that he knew through the astrology who will be spared. We dreamed on the same night!
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'[Each] man, like the interpretation (Pisaron) of his dream' - A dream that was appropriate for the interpretation that was given, resembling it." But the inverse would be more accurate; it is the interpretation that should match the dream!
Gur Aryeh (to 40:5): Pisaron means 'outcome;' the dreams matched the events that would soon befall each of them. 1
Ramban (to 40:5): Indeed, were Pisaron to mean 'interpretation,' why would the chief butler tell Pharaoh that their earlier dreams had an obvious interpretation? He would be downplaying Yosef's abilities! Perhaps Pharaoh's dream would not be so obvious, and Yosef might fail to interpret it (then they would be summoning him for naught).
