What is the significance of the fact that the lean cows ate the fat ones?
Rashi: It signifies that all the benefits of the good years would be forgotten once the years of famine began. 1
Ramban: To inform Pharaoh that the excessive grain that grew in the good years would be used in the bad years. In fact, that is what prompted Yosef to advise Pharaoh to store away grain during the good years. 2
Why does it not say that there were seven lean cows that ate the fat ones?
Ha'amek Davar: The plural "Paros" implies only two. The first two years of famine consumed [all that was saved] in the seven good years. Yaakov's arrival in Egypt helped [to interrupt the famine] so that they would not starve. 1
Through Hashgachah, Pharaoh did not ask Yosef about this, so all attributed the early end of the famine to Yaakov. Why was Egypt still selling to other countries in the second year, when they were close to running out of food? Perhaps Yosef decided to, amidst concern for his family, and even Pharaoh feared to object. He told the Egyptians 'obey Yosef's decree to circumcise. Just like he decreed that our grain rot, he could decree that we die!' (Rashi to 41:55) However, how would Yosef justify himself had the famine not ended? He himself expected it lo last five more years (45:6)! (PF)
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "The [lean cows] ate...' - To represent how the joy of the plenty would be forgotten during the famine." Is Rashi giving away the dream's interpretation?
Gur Aryeh: Yosef did not address this stage directly in his interpretation, because it is subsumed under, "Seven years of famine will then follow..." (41:30). 1 Rashi therefore explains it here.
Gur Aryeh: But Ramban derives it from, "it was not discernible that they had entered their insides" (41:21). Rashi does not derive from that phrase alone, for that stage needs to be preceded by the lean cows having eaten them.
Rashi writes: "The [lean cows] ate...' - To represent how the joy of the plenty would be forgotten during the famine." Why doesn't Rashi explain this phrase as does the Ramban - that during the years of famine, the Egyptians would be nourished by the produce from the years of plenty?
Gur Aryeh #1 (citing Mizrachi): [In the second half of the dream,] ears of grain do not "eat" in the sense of deriving nourishment! Rather, "eating" in the dream means swallowing up 1 or devouring [destructively].
Gur Aryeh #2: The dream was to inform Pharaoh of Hashem's decree. What the people would do in response is their own choice, and should not be included in the dream.
Gur Aryeh: See Rashi to 41:30.
Rashi writes: "To represent how the joy of the plenty would be forgotten during the famine." Was it completely forgotten? They were still consuming the produce!
Gur Aryeh: The famine was so intense, that it eclipsed the years of plenty, despite their efforts to store grain. (Had they not stored any produce, it would just have been more intense.)
