1)

Why does the Torah write three times in this context, "va'Yomer Pharaoh El Yosef" (41:39,41,44) ?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: They represent the three offices to which Pharaoh appointed Yosef 1 in his capacity as viceroy; (a) Minister of the storehouses and provisions; 2 (b) The power to institute new laws related to the current situation, and (c) The appointment of a police force, to guard the storehouses against thieves and against foreign enemies who might attempt to break in and steal the grain. 3

2.

Malbim (to 41:40, 41:41, and 41:44): First Pharaoh put Yosef over his house, then over all of Egypt, and finally, he authorized him to run the country alone, without asking Pharaoh or other nobles. 4


1

Oznayim la'Torah: It is remarkable how Yosef attained the position of virtual king of Egypt - not only with the consent of, but on the express orders of Pharaoh himself. See Oznayim la'Torah.

2

Oznayim la'Torah: To oversee the distribution and sale of grain from the king's storehouse during the years of plenty and of famine.

3

See Oznayim la'Torah who elaborates on all three issues.

4

Below (to 50:7), Malbim says that the last elevation was to be second to the king.

2)

Why did Pharaoh insert the word "Re'eh"?

1.

Seforno: Pharaoh told Yosef to take note of the responsibility that he had placed on his shoulders, and see that he lives up to it.

2.

Ha'amek Davar: This was to make him zealous to oversee the country.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

3)

Rashi writes: "'I have placed you [over the entire land of Egypt]' - [As Targum translates,] 'I have appointed you.'" Why does this require explanation?

1.

Gur Aryeh: One cannot "place" a person over the land in the literal sense. Furthermore, Yosef was already in Egypt (there was no need to "place" him there).

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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