Why does the Torah use the word "va'Tichlenah" for 'ended'?
Da'as Zekenim; Hadar Zekenim: "Va'Tichlenah" is like "Kelulos" - the people were Kelulos (had all) beauty due to the satiation.
Why does it say "b'Eretz Mitzrayim"? It already said (41:29) that the plenty will be in Eretz Mitzrayim!
Ha'amek Davar: This hints that grain did not grow in the seventh year. Had it grown, they would not have been hungry in the eighth year, for each year's harvest is eaten the following year. 1 In Egypt, they were eating vegetables in the years of plenty, and Yosef saved the grain, so the hunger started together with the famine.
If Egypt is like Eretz Yisrael, the wheat harvest is usually around Shavuos. If each year's harvest lasted until the next year's harvest, the hunger would have started after Shavuos of the seventh year! Perhaps most people had enough extra old grain to eat from the harvest until Tishrei, and they left the entire harvest outside to dry until Tishrei. (PF)
