Rashi (to Bamidbar 12:1) brings this Pasuk as a source that "Dibur" means strong (i.e. harsh) speech. What does Dibur mean; and why is this so?
Gur Aryeh (to Devarim 2:15): "Dibur" is the act of pronouncing the letters and emitting sound, which is forceful. "Amirah" relates to the content conveyed by that speech, which is intangible. 1
Also refer to 19:7:1:1. Also see Gur Aryeh to Shemos 6:2.
Why did they say "ki'Meraglim"?
Malbim: They implied that the viceroy had a mere suspicion about them. They hid that really, he decided that they are surely spies, just he would not kill them if they bring Binyamin (lest Yaakov refuse to let Binyamin go).
Why did they not tell Yaakov about the latter suspicion (lest Levi be accused of stealing back his money)?
