Did Yosef in fact acquire the people of Egypt together with the land, as they had suggested (see 47:19)?
Ramban (to 47:19): In spite of their request, Yosef only consented to acquire their land, rendering them permanent 1 serfs of Pharaoh, who worked the land like sharecroppers (- but not as slaves). 2
Seforno (to 47:23): He acquired the people as well as the land, 3 and they were therefore Pharaoh's slaves.
Ramban: As they firmly undertook - "the land shall not become desolate!" (47:19).
And when Yosef said, " ... I have acquired you on behalf of Pharaoh" (47:23), he did not mean as slaves, but that Pharaoh was master over their land, in which case he would have been entitled to receive four fifths of the produce (Ramban) - Refer to 47:24:1:1 and the note there.
As the Torah there intimates.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'The land was unto Pharaoh' - I.e., he acquired it." How else might I have understood the Pasuk?
Gur Aryeh: It cannot mean that the land came under Pharaoh's sovereignty; for he was already ruler over Mitzrayim! Now it became his personal possession as well.
