1)
What is the 'Azkarah' mentioned in the Pasuk referring to?
2)
Why does the Torah repeat the word "ha'Minchah" here?
1.
Oznayim la'Torah (citing Midrash Rabah): To teach us that the Minchah must all be joined together in one K?li - and not in two separate Keilim. 1
1
Oznayim la'Torah: Even though the Torah already taught us this in Tzav - refer to Vayikra, 6:8:1:1, the Torah repeats it here because, since the husband shares in the Minchah, we would have thought that the Kohen may bring it half in one K'li and his half in the other..
3)
Having written in Pasuk 24 "Vehishkah es ha'Ishah", why does the Torah insert here "Achar Yashkeh es ha'Ishah ... "?