Seeing as all of Yisrael are related via Ya'akov Avinu and his descendents, how is it possible for a Yisrael to have no relatives?
Rashi: The Pasuk is referring to a Ger who has no heirs. 1
Since a Ger is like a newborn baby (Yevamos, 22a).
Why does the Torah insert the word "la'Ish"?
Bava Kama, 109b: With reference to the previous D'rashah, it teaches us that it is only a Ger Gadol who needs to be checked as to whether he has heirs (since he may have since married and had children), but not a Katan. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 23.
What is the meaning of the word "ve'Im Ein la'Ish Go'el"?
Rashi (in Bava Kama, 109a): It means that he has no relatives.
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means that he has no redeemer. 1
Ha'amek Davar: By referring to a relative as "Go'el", the Torh is teaching us that the Dinim of precedence in connection with redeeming a field and an Eved Ivri is connected with the Din of Yerushah. See Ha'amek Davar.
What is "ha'Asham ha'Mushav" referring to?
Rashi: "ha'Asham" refers to the Keren (the principal) 1 and "ha'Mushav", to the additional fifth. 2
Rashbam: It refers to the Keren
Bava Kama, 109b: The double Lashon "Lehashiv ha'Asham" ... "ha'Asham ha'Mushav" includes a Giyores (a female convert). 3
What are the implications of the words "ha'Asham ha'Mushav la'Hashem la'Kohen"?
Rashi and Seforno: It implies that, if the Ger - the owner of the money is no longer alive, then his Master (Hashem) acquires it (and passes it on to the Kohanim of the Mishmar that is serving that week - Rashi). 1
If the Gazlan is a Kohen, may he keep the money himself?
Seeing as the money goes to all the members of the current Mishmar, why does the Torah write "la'Kohen" and not 'la'Kohanim'?
Bava Kama, 109a: To teach us that, if the Chomesh is insufficient for each Kohen in the Mishmar to receive a P'rutah, the Gazlan is not Yotzei.
Why does the Torah refer to Gezel ha'Ger as "Asham"?
Bava Kama, 110a: To teach us that, like an Asham, if one returns it at night-time 1 or in halves, he is not Yotzei,
Bava Kama, 110b: To teach us that, like an Asham, the Kohanim cannot swap one lot of Gezel ha'Ger for another. 2
What is the "Eil ha'Kipurim"?
Rashi and Rashbam: It is the Korban Asham mentioned in Vayikra, 5:25. 1
Which the sinner is also obligated to bring after he has said Viduy and returned the principal to its owner.
What is the significance of the comparison of the Keren and the Asham to the Eil ha'Asham?
Bava Kama 109b: It teaches us that, like the Korban Asham, it is given to the Kohanim of the current Mishmar, and not to the Kohen of the Gazlan's choice. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 32.
Why does the Torah write "asher Yechaper bo alav" (in the future)?
Bava Kama, 111a: To teach us that when he returns the money, he has yet to bring the Ashem ? In other words, he is obligated to return the money before brining the Asham..
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that the Pasuk is discussing a Ger who has no heirs. But we explain the Pasuk in B'har Vayikra, 25:26 "Ish ki Lo Yih'yeh lo Go'el" to mean that he has a Go'el only he does not want to redeem (what his relative sold)?
Moshav Zekeinim: Here we cannot learn like tha, because why should the heir object to receiving the stolen aricle. 1
Refer to Vayikra 25:26:1:1 & 2.
