1)

Seeing as all of Yisrael were there, what does the Torah mean when it writes "Vayikra Moshe el Kol Yisra'el"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Ramban): It means that, although he had rebuked all Yisrael and designated the Arei Miklat in front of them, he called out in a loud voice, that all Yisrael should hear 1 - because now he was about to teach them Chukim and MIshpatim - the maon focus of Mishneh Torah, beginning with the Aseres ha'Dibros, just as Hashem did at Matan Torah.


1

See Oznayim la'Torah.

2)

What are the implications of the double statement "ve'Limadtem osam u'Shemartem La'asosam"?

1.

Rashi: Refer to Bechukosai, 26:3:2:1.

2.

Yevamos, 109b: It implies that if one learns with the intention not to fulfil what one learns, there is no reward for learning. 1

3.

Kidushin, 29a: It implies that, if a father did not teach his son Torah, he is obligated to learn it himself in order to fulfil it.


1

Torah Temimah: 'If theere is no fulfilment, there is no learning!'. And by the same token, it implies the opposite - ''I there is no learning, there is no fulfilment!'.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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