What did Hashem mean when He said to Moshe "ve'Atah Poh Amod Imadi"?
Rashi (in Bamidbar 12:8): He meant that Moshe should separate from his wife, Tziporah. 1
Shabbos, 87a: It means that He authenticated Moshe's decision to separate from his wife. 2
Megilah, 21a: We learn from here that the Ba'al Korei is obligasted to stand when he Leins from the Torah, 3
Megilah, 21a:"Amod Imadi" implies that the Rebbe is not permitted to sit on a couch whilst his Talmid sits on the floor. 4
Oznayim la'Torah (in the name of the S'fas Emes): Hashem was telling Mosh that, even though Yisrael were now permitted to go home to their wives, thereby freeing him to move closer towards Hashem, 5 he remained restricted to the boundaries that Hashem had previously laid out for him.
Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Alshich): This Pasuk is referring to Hashem's advice to hold on to the Kisei ha'Kavod in order to know how to answer the questions put to him by the Mal'achim. 6
Rashi: Following His instructions that the rest of the people return to their 'tents' (their wives), Refer to Bamidbar, 12:8:1:1.
See Torah Temimah, note 19.
See Torah Temimah, note 20.
In fact, untill the death of Raban Gamliel, they would learn Torah standing - as implied by the current Pasuk. See Torh Temimah, note 21.
See Oznayhim la'Torah.
As the Gemara explains in Shabbos, 88
Why does the Torah insert the words "Va'asu ba'Aretz"?
Ramban (in Acharei-Mos Vayikra, 18:25) and R. Bechayei #1: Because basically, the Mitzvos were given to be kept in Eretz Yisrael. 1
R. Bechayei #2: Because they were about to enter the land.
RS"R Hirsh: Because Yisrael inherited the land only in order to keep the Torah in Eretz Yisrael - in the most ideal way possible.
Oznayim la'Torah: According to the Alshich (Refer to 5:28:1:6 and note), this hints at Moshe's reply to the Mal'achm - that the Torah can only be kept on earth, and has no place in heaven. 2
Refer to Vayikra, 18:25:1:1.
Oznayhim la'Torah: And since Moshe only obtained the Torah because it can only be kept here on earth, the Pasuk continues "u'Shemartem La'asos" ... ", so that he should not be accused of obtaining the Torah under false pretences, and to prevent the Torah from being returned to heaven.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "Amod Imadi" obligated Moshe to separate from his wife, But the Gemara in Shabbos, 87a states that Moshe decided to separate from his wife due to a Kal va'Chomer (from B'nei Yisrael, who needed to separate)?
Riva (Sh'mos 19:15): Once Hashem commanded Yisrael to separate from their wives, Moshe divorced his wife. Aharon and Miriam presumed that, had he not done so, Hashem would not have commanded him, seeing as Moshe had been a Navi long before this, and Hashem did not command him to separate from his wife. 1
The Gemara says in Pesachim, 18b that even something that one can learn from a Kal va'Chomer the Torah will insert. Consequently, the fact that the Torah writes it is no contradiction to the fact that Moshe decided to separate from a Kal va'Chomer.
Refer to 5:28:2:2.
Riva: Even though Tziporah said 'from when Hashem spoke to him, he separated from me', that was a temporary separation. He divorced her only after B'nei Yisrael were commanded to separate.
