Why does the Torah add the word "ve'Im"?
Pesachim, 71b: To include the Chagigah of the fourteenth of Nisan in the Din of two days and one night. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 50. Refer also to 7:15:151:1.
Seeing as a Todah too, comes as a Neder or a Nedavah, why does the Torah describe Shelamim as "Neder O Nedavah"?
Rashi and Rashbam: Because primarily, the owner designated the animal as a Todah as thanks to Hashem for a miracle that He performed with him, whereas a Shelamim is a Neder or a Nedavah exclusively.
What is the difference between "Neder" and "Nedavah"?
Rashi (in Rosh ha'Shanah, 5b) and Rashbam: 'Neder' is when the owner declares 'Harei Alai', in which case he must bring a Korban even if the animal that he subsequently designates dies or gets lost. 'Nedavah' is when he declares 'Harei Zu', in which case should the animal die or get lost, he is exempt
Since the Pasuk is teaching us that whatever is leftover after the first day should be eaten on the second day, why is there a 'Vav' in "ve'ha'Nosar"?
Rashi and Ramban #1 (citing the Ibn Ezra): The 'Vav' is superfluous. 1
Ramban #2 (citing the Sifra): To teach us that, Lechatchilah the owner should eat it all on the first day, and only Bedi'eved, whatever remains after the first day, he should eat on the second.
Targum Yonasan: The Pasuk is saying that whatever remains from the first and second days,, he should eat in the late afternoon 2 - to preclude the night of the third day. 3
As we find in Bereishis 36:24, and in Daniel, 8:13 (Rashi - See Ramban's final comment on the Pasuk).
To avoid it becoming Nosar at nightfall (See Na'ar Yonasan).
Peirush Yonasan.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ye'achel"?
