1)

Bearing in mind that the Torah already taught us 'Bein ha'Arbayim' in Parshas Bo, 12:6, why does the Torah insert the words "Bein ha'Arbayim be'Midbar Sinai"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Meshesh Chochmah): To teach us that 'Bein ha'Arbayim' is subject to the location where the Korban Pesach was being sacrificed, and not to the time that it fell in Egypt.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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