1)

"Va'espalel el Hashem Va'omar Hashem Elokim ? ". What is the connection between this Tefilah and the forty-day Tefilah mentioned in the previous Pasuk, the contents of which the Torah does not discluse?

1.

Rashi: Refer to 9:25:1:1 and note. 1 2

2.

Ramban and R. Bachye (on Pasuk 18, according to Kabalah): They are two separate Tefilos. The current Pasuk refers to the Tefilah that Moshe Davened before descending Har Sinai the first time 3 - following which the Torah wrote there 4 "Vayinachem Hashem al ha'Ra'ah ... "; the previous Pasuk, to the Tefilah that he Davened whilst on the mountain the second time.


1

The Gemara in B'rachos 32b supports this explanation. Refer to 10:10:2;1:1.

2

See also Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Va'esnapal lifnei Hashem' #1, citing the Ha'amek Davar, who explains Rashi. Refer to 9:26:2:1.

3

Which the Torah cited in Sh'mos, 32:11-13.

4

In 32:14.

2)

"Va'espalel el Hashem Va'omar Hashem Elokim ? ". Why is Hashem Elokim spelt ?Adnus Havayah'?

1.

R. Bachye: Refer to 9:26:2:1.

3)

"Va'espalel el Hashem Va'omar Hashem Elokim ? ". Why did Moshe Daven to "Hashem Elokim (spelt ?Adnus Havayah'), whereas the fortyday Tefilah he davened to the Name Havayah exclusively?

1.

R. Bachye (on Pasuk 18, according to Kabalah): He Davened initially to the Midas ha'Din 1 (which was about to annihilate them) and later to Shem Havayah - to counter Hashem's anger, which they aroused when they made the Eigel and were guilty of Mekatzetz Netiyos (which entails detaching oneself from the Shem Havayah).


1

?Adnus Havayah'.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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