What are the implications of "ve'ha'Nish'arim Yishme'u ve'Yira'u"?
Rashi: It implies that Beis-Din announce the impending death-sentence 1 - 'P'loni and P'loni are being put to death because they became Zom'min in Beis-Din!' 2
Ramban: Refer to 21:21:2:1**.
What are the implications of the "ve'ha'Nish'arim Yishm'u ve'Yira'u"? To whim does "ve'ha'Nish'arim" refer?
Targum Yonasan: With reference to Resha'im who plan to testify falsely in similar fashion to the Eidim Zomemin, the Torah teaches us that punishing the Eidim Zomemin in the prescribed manner will deter the Resha'im from carrying out their plans. 1
See Na'ar Yoinasan.
Why does the Torah writes in connection with Meisis, Ben Sorer u'Moreh and Zaken Mamrei "ve'Chol ha'Am (or ve'Chol Yisrael)" Yishme'u Veyira'u" (13:12, 21:21 & 17:13, respectively), whereas here it writes "ve'ha'Nish'arim Yishme'u Veyira'u "?
Refer to 17:13:152:1 & 2 and note.
Why does the Torah write here and by Meisis (13:12) "ve'Lo Yosifu La'asos", whereas by Zaken Mamrei (17:13) it writes "ve'Lo Yezidun Od"?
Refer to 13:12:151:1.
