Why does the Torah insert this Parshah here, and not in Vayikra?
Ramban (citing Seider Olam): 'On the first day of the Milu'im, Hashem called Moshe from the Ohel Mo'ed and taught him all the Parshiyos from the beginning of Vayikra until "Vay'hi ba'Yom ha'Shemini" - all in connection with the Korbanos. Then, on the eighth day (Rosh Chodesh Nisan), he taught him all the Parshiyos from "Zos ha'Chayah asher Tocheilu" 1 concerning Isur ve'Heter, all of which are connected to the Korbanos; and that continued right up to here. 2 And now, having completed the Mitzvos that are connected with the Avodah, the Korbanos, and the guarding of the Ohel Mo'ed and its service, it presents the gift of the Nesi'im with their Korban which they brought from the eight of Nisan until the 19th, or from Rosh Chodesh until the 12th. 3
What are the connotations of "be'Yom Kalos Moshe Le'hakim es ha'Mishkan"?
Rashi #1: It informs us that on the day that the Mishkan was erected, Yisrael were compared to a Kalah entering the Chupah. 1
Why does the Torah write ?be?Yom Kalos Moshe Le'hakim es ha?Mishkan?, and not simply?be?Yom Hakim Moshe es ha?Mishman??
Rashi #2 (citing the Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: It teaches us that, on each of the seven days of the ha'Milu'im, Moshe erected the Mishkan and dismantled it, 1 until the eighth day - Rosh Chodesh Nisan, when he finally erected it and left it standing. 2
Ramban: What the Pasuk means is that, on the same day that Moshe finished erecting the Mishkan anointing it and sanctifying all its Holy vessels and erecting the Mizbe'ach and anointing it, the princes ... brought their gift.
Which 'day' is the Torah referring to?
Refer to 7:1:2:2.
Bearing in mind that Betzalel, Ohaliav and all the wise men built the Mishkan, why does the Pasuk attribute it to Moshe?
Rashi 1 : Because Moshe was Moser Nefesh to see to it that they constructed the Mishkan exactly as Hashem taught 2 him on Har Sinai. 3
The question, that is posed by Rashi, is difficult to understand however, since the Pasuk is talking about the actual construction of the Mishkan, which was performed by Moshe alone ? as Rashi explains in the next Dibur - and not about its manufacture?
Rashi: And he did not make even one mistake.
Rashi: By the same token, the Navi in Melachim 1 16, refers to the Beis-Hamikdash as "the house of David", because he was Moser Nefesh (regarding its planning and the collecting of funds for it) - as the Pasuk writes in Tehilim, 132:1.
What is "ve'es ha'Mizbe'ach ve'es Kol Keilav" referring to?
Ramban and Seforno: It is referring to "be'Yom Kalos Moshe Lehakim es ha'Mishkan", mentioned at the beginning of the Pasuk.
What is the meaning of "Vayimshachem va'Yekadesh osam"?
Ramban #1 (citing the Ibn Ezra): It means that Moshe anointed the Mizbe'ach and its vessels with the anointing oil and sanctified them with the blood of the Chatas. 1
Ramban and Moshav Zekeinim: It means that Moshe anointed them (with the anointing oil) in order to sanctify them.
The Ramban and Moshav Zekeinim refute this explanation however, seeing as "Vayekadesh" applies also to the Mishkan, which was certainly not sanctified by the blood.
Why does the Torah repeat "Vayimshachem Vayekadesh osam"?
Sanhedrin, 16b: In order to extrapolaate from the word "Osam" that although the K'lei Shareis that Moshe made required anointing with the Shemen ha'Mishchah (to inaugurate them), from now on using them for the Avodah in the Beis Hamikdash would serve as their inauguration. 1
Menachos, 57b: The word "osam" comes to preclude the outside of the solid measures in the Beis-Hamikdash from adopting Kedushah - as opposed to the liquid measures which did. 2
Sifri: It teaches us that none of the Keilim became sanctified until they were all sanctified. 3
Oznayim la?Torah: "Va'yimshach oso Va'yekadesh Oso" refers to the inauguration of the Mishkan and its Keilim, "Va'yimshachem Va'yekadesh osam", to the inauguration of the Mizbe'ach and its Keilim. 4
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes (in the alternative text) that it is written 'Kalos' - without a 'Vav', to hint that Yisrael were like a Kalah. But it is written with a 'Vav'?
Riva: Rashi's comment is not in accordance with our tradition. 1
Gur Aryeh: The Torah writes "Kalos", and not 'Kilah' - which could not be read like Kalah.
Minchas Shai (citing the RaMaH): It should have been written Chaser, but Moshe did not want to credit himself 2 , and Hashem consented that he write it in full.
Or ha'Chayim: This is a very deep matter. It is as if it is written 'Kalas', with a 'Vav' in the middle, a hint to the Chasan.
Ha'Kesav ve'ha'Kabalah: It is punctuated with a 'Patach'; a hint that Moshe was like a friend who brought the Kalah to the Chupah.
However also the Gemara does not always follow our tradition!
Zohar: Written Chaser, it hints that the Shechinah was the Kalah of Moshe. See Toras Moshe, who connects this with the 'Vav' in "veha'Ish Moshe Anav"; Moshe claimed that Yisrael's 'marriage' to Hashem was not until Hakamas ha'Mishkan, so breaking the Luchos was able to nullify the Kidushin.
