What are the implications of "Lema'an Lo Yelamdu eschem ... "?
Rashi and Ramban (citing the Sifri): This implies that in the event that they do Teshuvah and convert (and accept the seven Mitzvos B'nei No'ach - Ramban), one is permitted to accept even the seven nations. 1
Ramban #2 (citing Rashi in Sotah, 35b): Teshuvah is only acceptable with regard to the other nations, or for Cana'anim in Chutz la'Aretz, but not for Cana'anim in Eretz Yisrael. 2
See Sifsei Chachamim. Refer also to 20:16:1:2* & 20:18:151:1 and note.
Ramban: This is not correct however, since the only reason that we are obligated to kill them is in case they cause us to indulge in idolatry. And this does not apply there where they abandoned their gods, So what difference does it make whether they are in Eretz Yisrael or in Chutz la'Aretz? See Torah Temimah, note 54 citing the Tosefta in Sotah.
Why does the Torah add the phrase "Vechatasem la'Hashem Elokeichem"?
How will we reconcile the fact that if they do Teshuvah, we may accept even the seven nations with the Pasuk "Lo Sechayeh Kol Neshamah" (in Pasuk 16)?
Refer to 20:16:1:1*.
Moshav Zekenim: Pasuk 16 is speaking when they do not want to repent; if they do 1 we may accept them. 2
Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Tosefta Sotah, 5: One is only permitted to accept Cana'anim who live in Chutz la'Aretz if they do Teshuvah, 3 but not in Eretz Yisrael, where "Lo Sechayeh Kol Neshamah" is unconditional - since their Tshuvah is out of fear and is not genuine.
Moshav Zekenim: And the reason that Yehoshua was angry with the Giv'onim was because they did not want to become complete Yisre'elim, only not to serve idolatry.
Refer also to 20:18:1:1 & 20:18:1:2*.
See also Torah Temimah at the beginnning of Ki Seitzei, citing Sotah, 35b, and note 69.
